Is it true that the Valencian language is just a dialect of
what some people name as "Western Catalan"
Not. With the intention of absorbing the Valencian language
inside the Catalan one, the catalan intellectuality of the 19th
century invented the term "Western Catalan" ("catalán
occidental") being based on some lexical and phonetic
similarities that the languages of the zone of Lleida (Lérida)
had with the Valencian language.
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Which is the motive of the similarities among the languages of Lerida
(Lleida) and the Valencian language ?
These similarities are product of the powerful influence that
the historical Kingdom of Valencia and its prestigious Valencian
language had on "Lleida's General Study" (university)
and, of general manner, on the Catalan language, from the 13th century
to the 18th century.
Besides, these similarities are product also of the linguistic influence
made (previous to the "Reconquest"), by the valencian
"Mossaraps" in the slightly populated lands of Lleida
where principally they sheltered themselves while fleeing of the
The Kingdom of Valencia was one of the most powerful and influential
kingdoms of the peninsula and the Mediterranean, both in the political
side and in the cultural one (Rome managed to have two valencian
Popes of the family Borja in an age in which the Popes had more
power that the kings).
The Valencian language was, in the 14th century, the language
that first managed to have a "Century
of Gold" ("Sigle d'Or") literary in the Iberian
peninsula, very influential on the rest of the languages of the
peninsula, principally on the Catalan language (the which one has
never had a "Century of Gold" literary unlike the Valencian
and Castilian language). The valencian writer Johanot
Martorell wrote inside his literary work "Tirant lo Blanch"
(1409), that the book was writing in "Valencian language".
Other valencian writers of this century did a identical declaration
inside their respective works (Nowadays the catalanist imperialism
hides these facts or manipulates them presenting the valencian writers
as catalan writers).
Therefore, it is an objective fact and contrastable that a big amount
of seemed that the Catalan language presents with the Valencian
language are due to the strong influence that the Valencian language
exercised for a long time on the Catalan language and also, to the
assimilation inside of many of villages of Lleida of many valencian
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Some people trying to convince that the Valencian language is a
variant of the Catalan language compare the relation of these two
languages with the existing relation among "the Andalusian",
"the murciano" or "the Argentinian"
with the Castilian language. Is this comparison correct ?
This comparison is neither correct nor applicable to case
of the Valencian language because as it has been said, the Valencian
language has an origin and a social-linguistic evolution perfectly
differentiated from the Catalan language. These facts have caused
for centuries that the valencian people had the clear and exact
conscience of considering to the Valencian language or "Valencian"
as their proper language and not another language more. This linguistic
differentiated feeling, for against, does not exist in any of the
above-mentioned cases of variants of the Castilian language where
their speakers do not have any conscience, not interest to demonstrate
that they speak a different language from the Castilian (Spanish).
Besides, the scientific discipline of the "social-linguistic"
declares that the most important point to consider if a language
it is as such, is that their users recognize it like proper language,
such and as it happens between the Valencian language and its owner,
the Valencian society.
Some people want to make believe that the names of "Valencian"
and "Catalan" are synonymous and that they point to the
same language, To the equal one to what it happens between the names
"Castilian" and "Spanish" that both point to
the Castilian language. Is this comparison correct ?
The equivalence of the terms "Castilian" and "Spanish"
cannot be applied to the names "Valencian" and "Catalan"
since the Valencian language and the Catalan one are two idiomatic
different realities as result of having had (and have) its own origin,
evolution, territorial, political area and social group of speakers
different and independent for centuries.
Determinant factors all of them in the development of the idiomatic
conscience of the Valencian society that considers, for centuries,
to the Valencian language as the only proper language, different
and independent from the Catalan one. Likewise, the Valencian society
only recognizes the names "Valencian", " Valencian
idiom " or " Valencian language " for its proper
language, pushing back the name of "Catalan" (and its
Nevertheless, unlike what it happens between the Valencian
language and the Catalan one, the denominations of "Castilian"
or "Spanish" correspond to the same language because the
idiomatic reality to which such terms refer is the same, such and
as spontaneously its own speakers and experts come recognizing throughout
Some people say that the inhabitants of the village of Vinaros speak
very seemed to as it is done by the inhabitants of some villages
of the south of Tarragona. Is this a proof that the Valencian language
and the Catalan language are the same ?
By no means. In the village of Vinaros (village at the north
end of Castellon's province (Autonomous Valencian Community) bordering
on the south of Tarragona (Catalunya)), its inhabitants speak a
"transitional" Valencian language. This "transicional"
language is consequence of the linguistic interchange of this village,
throughout the time, with some Catalan localities of the south of
This "transitional" Valencian language of Vinaros is not
representative of the linguistic generality of the rest of valencian
villages and therefore it cannot serve as prior modal for the development
of the general linguistic regulation of the Valencian language.
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